Cima P2 Exam Demo Questions - Exam4Help

Question no 1
An electronics company sells a range of tablet computers. Tablet computers come complete with an operating system that is regarded as the market leader. The company aims to launch a new version of its hardware every eighteen months and a major update to its software every three years. The latest version of the tablet computer is always sold at a higher price, but the older version that has been replaced is then sold for a time at a discounted price. Which pricing model does this company appear to be using?

A. Penetration and loss leader pricing
B. Penetration and product bundling
C. Skimming and loss leader pricing
D. Skimming and product bundling
Answer: D


Question No. 2
A company is classifying its quality costs to prepare a quality cost report. Which of the following are conformance costs?Select ALL that apply.

A. Internal Failure Costs
B. External Failure Costs
C. Prevention Costs
D. Appraisal Costs

Answer: C, D


Question No. 3
Which of the following would change if the cost of capital of a proposed project was increased?

A. Internal rate of return
B. Payback period
C. Accounting rate of return
D. Net present value

Answer: D


Question No. 4
Division A and Division B are divisions of the same group. Division A transfers all of its output to Division B.
Which THREE of these alternative transfer pricing bases will prevent any cost inefficiencies in Division A being passed on to Division B?

A. Standard variable cost
B. Actual full cost
C. Actual prime cost
D. Market price
E.  Actual variable cost
F. Standard variable cost plus a profit margin

Answer: A, D, F


Question No. 5

In accordance with a just-in-time (JIT) philosophy, which of the following is regarded as a value added activity?

A. Inspecting raw material deliveries
B. Moving work in progress around production facilities
C. Holding inventory
D. Dispatching products to customers

Answer: D


Question No. 6
When making an investment decision, which THREE of the following are reasons why receiving $1 today is preferable to receiving $1 in the future?

A. Uncertainty
B. Inflation
C. Taxation
D. Re-investment opportunities
E. Depreciation

Answer: A, B, D


Question No. 7
The money cost of capital is 12%. The expected rate of inflation is 4%. What is the real cost of capital? Give your answer to 2 decimal places.



Answer: 7.69 %, 7.70 %

Question No. 8
The money cost of capital is 12%. The expected rate of inflation is 4%. What is the real cost of capital? Give your answer to 2 decimal places.

Answer: 7.69 %, 7.70 %

Question No. 9
Company X is considering the launch of a new product. In order to compete in the market the selling price must be $100 per unit. Company X aims to achieve a sales margin of 25 per cent. Direct materials cost is $75 for each unit. It takes 15 minutes for workers to assemble each unit. Workers are paid $16 per hour. 5 per cent of paid time is idle. Overheads are absorbed at $6.50 per unit. What is the value of any cost gap between the forecast total cost and the target cost?

A. $10.71
B. $5.50
C. $10.50
D. $9.10

Answer: A

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CIMA P1 Dumps Question & Answers - Exam4Help

EST CIMA P1 DUMPS - PASS YOUR EXAM IN  FIRST ATTEMPT

P1 exam has grabbed the interest of IT students with its rising need and importance in the field. In spite of being a hard core IT exam, it can easily be passed with the help of P1 dumps material.This highly demanded and results-producing authentic dumps material can be obtained from Exam4help.com. When you will prepare under the guidance of veterans by using additional facilitating services, your certification is stamped with success.

As a favor to our students, we have availed free of cost demo version for quick quality check before going forward. You get here trust, find satisfaction and meet your success with expertly verified P1 questions answer. You can download PDF study guide right now at very cheap and attractive price and pursue your career with fast pace. Further, it is the place where you get money back guarantee in case of, though not expected, unfortunate happening and you fail to get your desired result in your final exam. In short, you are promised for definite success with student-friendly preparatory solutions. Just join our hands and leap for your successful career.

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Axis ANVE Dumps Question & Answers - Exam4Help

Question: 1

Which of the following statements are true for H.264? (Choose two)

A. The size of an l-frame depends on the preceding P-frame
B. Increased motion in a scene means increased bit rate
C. Group of Video (GOV) length is directly affected by the sizes of the I- and P-frames
D. A P-frame references preceding and succeeding P-frames
E. Longer GOV length means reduced bit rate
https://www.exam4help.com/axis/anve-dumps.html
Answer: B, E 


Question: 2

What is the main purpose of the Arctic Temperature Control functionality?

A. To protect the camera electronics
B. To protect the camera mechanics
C. To protect the camera lens
D. To protect the camera power

Answer: B 


Question: 3

Which is true regarding the use of a smoked (tinted) dome instead of a clear dome?

A. Decreases color fidelity
B. Decreases field of view
C. Disables infrared capabilities
D. Reduces light sensitivity

Answer: D 


Question: 4

A company is looking for a dome designed to withstand vibrations inherent to transportation. Which of the following cameras should be recommended?

A. AXIS P3344-VE
B. AXIS M3014
C. AXIS M3114-R
D. AXIS P1344

Answer: C


Question: 5

Which is a benefit of using VLANs and IP subnets?

A. An encrypted communication link is established over the internet, allowing surveillance video to be securely viewed off-site
B. The network provides end-to-end encryption to prevent malicious users from intercepting network
traffic
C. The network will only allow access from authorized devices, eliminating the risk that malicious users
disconnect cameras to intercept network traffic
D. Network surveillance video can be kept separate from other network traffic, reducing the risk that
malicious users will intercept it
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Answer: D 



Question: 6

In many places 24 V AC has been popular as a power source but now 12 V and 24 V DC is increasing in popularity because

A. There is more energy in DC.
B. It is easier to back-up DC with battery.
C. There is less power loss in cables with DC.
D. There is less risk for surge with DC.

Answer: B 


Question: 7

Which of the following are outdoor rated products? (Choose two)

A. AXIS M3114-R
B. AXIS P3304-VR
C. AXIS P1344-E
D. AXIS P3344-VE
E. AXIS M1031-W

Answer: C, D

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CompTIA SY0-501 Dumps Study Material - Exam4Help

Question: 1

Which of the following would a security specialist be able to determine upon examination of a server’s certificate?

A. CA public key
B. Server private key
C. CSR
D. OID

Answer: D 

Question: 2

A security analyst is diagnosing an incident in which a system was compromised from an external IP
address. The socket identified on the firewall was traced to 207.46.130.0:6666. Which of the following should the security analyst do to determine if the compromised system still has an active connection?

A. tracert
B. netstat
C. ping
D. nslookup
https://www.exam4help.com/comptia/sy0-501-dumps.html
Answer: B 


Question: 3

Multiple organizations operating in the same vertical want to provide seamless wireless access for their employees as they visit the other organizations. Which of the following should be implemented if all the organizations use the native 802.1x client on their mobile devices?

A. Shibboleth
B. RADIUS federation
C. SAML
D. OAuth
E. OpenID connect

Answer: B 


Question: 4

Which of the following BEST describes an important security advantage yielded by implementing vendor diversity?

A. Sustainability
B. Homogeneity
C. Resiliency
D. Configurability

Answer: C


Question: 5

In a corporation where compute utilization spikes several times a year, the Chief Information Officer
(CIO) has requested a cost-effective architecture to handle the variable capacity demand. Which of the following characteristics BEST describes what the CIO has requested?

A. Elasticity
B. Scalability
C. High availability
D. Redundancy
https://www.exam4help.com/comptia/sy0-501-dumps.html
Answer: A 



Question: 6

A security engineer is configuring a system that requires the X.509 certificate information to be pasted into a form field in Base64 encoded format to import it into the system. Which of the following certificate formats should the engineer use to obtain the information in the required format?

A. PFX
B. PEM
C. DER
D. CER

Answer: B 



Question: 7

Which of the following attacks specifically impact data availability?

A. DDoS
B. Trojan
C. MITM
D. Rootkit

Answer: A 


Question: 8

A security analyst is hardening a server with the directory services role installed. The analyst must
ensure LDAP traffic cannot be monitored or sniffed and maintains compatibility with LDAP clients.
Which of the following should the analyst implement to meet these requirements? (Select two.)

A. Generate an X.509-compliant certificate that is signed by a trusted CA.
B. Install and configure an SSH tunnel on the LDAP server.
C. Ensure port 389 is open between the clients and the servers using the communication.
D. Ensure port 636 is open between the clients and the servers using the communication.
E. Remote the LDAP directory service role from the server.

Answer: AD 


Question: 9

Which of the following threat actors is MOST likely to steal a company’s proprietary information to gain a market edge and reduce time to market?

A. Competitor
B. Hacktivist
C. Insider
D. Organized crime.

Answer: A 


Question: 10

A penetration tester is crawling a target website that is available to the public. Which of the following
represents the actions the penetration tester is performing?

A. URL hijacking
B. Reconnaissance
C. White box testing
D. Escalation of privilege

Answer: B 



Question: 11

Which of the following characteristics differentiate a rainbow table attack from a brute force attack?
(Select two.)

A. Rainbow table attacks greatly reduce compute cycles at attack time.
B. Rainbow tables must include precomputed hashes.
C. Rainbow table attacks do not require access to hashed passwords.
D. Rainbow table attacks must be performed on the network.
E. Rainbow table attacks bypass maximum failed login restrictions.

Answer: BE 



Question: 12

Which of the following best describes routine in which semicolons, dashes, quotes, and commas are
removed from a string?

A. Error handling to protect against program exploitation
B. Exception handling to protect against XSRF attacks.
C. Input validation to protect against SQL injection.
D. Padding to protect against string buffer overflows.

Answer: C 



Question: 13

A security analyst wishes to increase the security of an FTP server. Currently, all traffic to the FTP server is unencrypted. Users connecting to the FTP server use a variety of modern FTP client software. The security analyst wants to keep the same port and protocol, while also still allowing unencrypted connections. Which of the following would BEST accomplish these goals?

A. Require the SFTP protocol to connect to the file server.
B. Use implicit TLS on the FTP server.
C. Use explicit FTPS for connections.
D. Use SSH tunneling to encrypt the FTP traffic.

Answer: C 



Question: 14

Which of the following explains why vendors publish MD5 values when they provide software patches for their customers to download over the Internet?

A. The recipient can verify integrity of the software patch.
B. The recipient can verify the authenticity of the site used to download the patch.
C. The recipient can request future updates to the software using the published MD5 value.
D. The recipient can successfully activate the new software patch.

Answer: A

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Juniper JN0-662 Dumps Service Provider Routing and Switching, Professional (JNCIP-SP) Exam Practice Test Quesions

Question: 1

Which two types of LSAs have a domain scope? (Choose two.)

A. Type 7
B. Type 2
C. Type 10
D. Type 5

Answer: C,D 


Question: 3

You are asked to configure a new Layer 3 VPN. In this scenario, which routing-instance type must be used?

A. vpls
B. evpn
C. vrf
D. 12vpn

Answer: C 


Question: 4

Which authentication strategy authenticates IS-IS hello PDUs only?

A. interface authentication
B. area authentication
C. domain authentication
D. level authentication

Answer: D 

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VMware 2V0-622 Exam Dumps Question Answers - Exam4Help

Question: 1

Which are two supported storage primitives for VAAI NAS? (Choose two.)

A. block zeroing
B. Reserve Space
C. hardware assisted locking
D. Full File Clone

Answer: AC 

Question: 2

Which two choices are applicable to vSphere Availability? (Choose two.)

A. Admission Control
B. Heartbeat Datastores
C. VM Startup/Shutdown
D. Power Management

Answer: AB 


Question: 3

What are three considerations when booting ESXihost from SAN using software FCoE? (Choose three.)

A. The VMware_FCoE_vSwitch that the installer automatically created cannot be changed.
B. Boot LUN cannot be shared with other hosts even on shared storage.
C. Multipathing is not supported at pre-boot.
D. Software FCoE boot configuration cannot be changed from within ESXi

Answer: BCD


Question: 4

Which two statements correctly describe VM-VM affinity rules? (Choose two.)

A. vSphere DRS attempts to keep the virtual machines together on the same ESXi host.
https://www.exam4help.com/vmware/2v0-622-dumps.html
B. When two VM-VM affinity rules conflict, the older one takes precedence and the newer rule is
disabled.
C. vSphere DRS attempts to keep the virtual machines on separate ESXi hosts.
D. When two VM-VM affinity rules conflict, the newer one takes precedence and the older rule is
disabled.

Answer: AB


Question: 5

Which port is used for vSphere HA agent-to-agent communication?

A. 902
B. 443
C. 8182
D. 22

Answer: C 


Question: 6

In which scenario will vSphere DRS balance resources when set to Fully Automated?

A. Hosts with shared or non-shared storage
B. Hosts with only shared storage
C. Hosts are part of a vSphere HA cluster
D. Power Management is set to Balanced on hosts

Answer: B 


Question: 7
The Health Check feature in the vSphere Distributed Switch helps troubleshoot network connectivity.
What three checks does this feature perform? (Choose three.)

A. Network Utilization
B. MTU
C. VLAN
D. Teaming and Failover

Answer: BCD 


Question: 8

An administrator must collect diagnostic information following a failed ESXi host upgrade. Which
command should the administrator run?

A. vm-support
B. Get-Esxtop
C. vicfg-syslog
D. esxtop -R vm-support_dir_path

Answer: A 


Question: 9

An ESXi host’s VMCA-Signed certificate has expired. How can the certificate be renewed?

A. In the vSphere Web Client, browse to the host in question. Click the Manage tab and select settings.
Select System and click Certificate, then click the Renew button.
B. In the vSphere Web Client, browse to the host in question. Click the Manage tab and select settings.
Select System and click Certificate, then click the Refresh CA Certificates button.
C. Run the command /sbin/generate-certificates on the affected host.
D. Disconnect the host from vCenter Server and reconnect it.

Answer: D 


Question: 10

Which is the correct order for upgrading vSphere components?

A. vCenter Server, ESXi hosts, VMware Tools, Virtual Machine hardware
B. VMware Tools, Virtual Machine hardware, ESXi hosts, vCenter Server
C. vCenter Server, Virtual Machine hardware, VMware tools, ESXi hosts
D. ESXi hosts, vCenter Server, Virtual Machine hardware, VMware Tools

Answer: A 

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Cisco 300-360 Exam Dumps Study Material - Exam4Help

Question: 1

Which two types of information must be included in the installation inventory portion of the postinstallation report? (Choose two.)

A. all AP, controller, and MSE administrator credentials
B. the names, locations, IP addresses, MAC addresses, etc. for every AP, controller, and MSE in the
WLAN
C. a layout of the rack that the equipment is installed
D. results of the coverage audit performed with the site survey mapping tool
E. the number and type of all WLAN clients and tags

Answer: A, B 


Question: 2

A customer wants to implement a wireless network in a historic location, but is concerned about the
structural and aesthetic impact to the facility. Which benefit of using wireless mesh addresses these
concerns?

A. Power is required only at the installation location.
B. The APs do not have LED lights.
C. More wireless channels can be supported.
D. APs do not need network connections.

Answer: D 


Question: 3

An engineer is preparing for an indoor wireless LAN survey and is provisioning a survey kit. Which three pieces of equipment should be included? (Choose three.)

A. external connector access point
B. integrated antenna access point
C. coax low-loss cable
D. battery operated power supply
E. range finder
F. Yagi antennas

Answer: B, D, E 


Question: 4

Which three options are benefits of U-APSD? (Choose three.)

A. optimized power-save mode periods
B. increased call capacity
C. bandwidth reservation
D. synchronization of the transmission and reception of voice frames
E. efficient roaming
F. priority bandwidth and polling

Answer: A, B, D 


Question: 5

A customer has restricted the AP and antenna combinations for a design to be limited to one model
integrated antenna AP for carpeted spaces and one model external antenna AP, with high gain antennas for industrial, maintenance, or storage areas. When moving between a carpeted area to an industrial area, the engineer forgets to change survey devices and surveys several APs. Which option is the best to reduce the negative impact of the design?

A. Deploy the specified access points per area type.
B. Resurvey and adjust the design.
C. Increase the Tx power on incorrectly surveyed access points.
D. Deploy unsurveyed access points to the design.

Answer: B 



Question: 6

An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a carpeted office space, which requires voice capability and location services. Which two requirements are inputs to the design? (Choose two.)

A. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from three access points
B. overlapping -75 dBm coverage from three access points
C. overlapping-72 dBm coverage from two access points
D. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
E. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point

Answer: A, D 


Question: 7

The AP has been configured property for a VoWLAN survey The RF environment contains a noise of -87 to -90 dBm. What is the target value for the cell edge reading?

A. -62 dBm
B. -67 dBm
C. -60 dBm
D. -70 dBm

Answer: B 


Question: 8 

A customer has dual-band devices that they want to use 40 MHz channels. If the customer is using Cisco 3600 Series access points with a 5508 controller. Which setting assists with this change?

A. Enable band select globally.
B. Enable aggressive load balancing.
C. Disable lower data rates on 802 .11G GHz radios.
D. Disable overlapping 802.11G channels.

Answer: A 


Question: 9

An engineer is tuning RRM parameters to improve client connectivity. Which channel band results in the best 802.11n client compatibility?

A. UNII-2
B. UNII-2e
C. UNII-3
D. UNII
E. UNII-1

Answer: E 


Question: 10

An engineer is assigned to assist a customer by estimating the number of access points needed to
provide voice-grade wireless coverage in a carpeted office space. How many access points should be
estimated to cover this space of roughly 38,000 square feet?

A. 17
B. 10
C. 6
D. 13

Answer: D 

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AZ-300 Exam Dumps Practice Test Questions - Exam4Help

Exam AZ-300: Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies
Candidates for this exam are Azure Solution Architects who advise stakeholders and translates business requirements into secure, scalable, and reliable solutions. Candidates should have advanced experience...
More  
Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Azure Solutions Architect Expert
Related exams: Exam AZ-301 or Transition Exam AZ-302

Question: 1

You need to access user claims in the e-commerce web app. What should you do first?

A. Write custom code to make a Microsoft Graph API call from the e commerce web app.

B. Assign the Contributor RBAC role to the e-commerce web app by using the Resource Manager create

role assignment API

C. Update the e-commerce web app to read the HTTP request header values.

D. Using the Azure CU, enable Cross-origin resource sharing (CORS) from the e-commerce checkout API

to the e-commerce web

Answer: A

Question: 2

You need to meet the scaling requirements for Policy Service. What should you store in Azure Redis Cache?

A. ViewState

B. HttpContext.tems

C. Session state

D. TempData

Answer: B  

Question: 3

You need to resolve a notification latency issue. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Ensure that the Azure Function is set to use a consumption plan.

B. Set Always On to false

C. Set Always On to true

D. Ensure that the Azure Function is using an App Service plan.

Answer: AC 

Question: 4

You need to ensure that the solution can meet the scaling requirements for Policy Service.

Which Azure Application Insights data model should you use?

A. an Application Insights trace

B. an Application Insights metric

C. an Application Insights dependency

D. an Application Insights event

Answer: B 

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