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Friday 4 December 2020

30% Flat Discount On McAfee MA0-104 Dumps PDF - Exam4help.com

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Question No: 1

The normalization value assigned to each data-source event allows

A. increased usability via views based on category rather than signature ID

B. more efficient parsing of each event by the McAfee SIEM Receiver.

C. quicker ELM searches

D. the McAfee ESM database to retain fewer events overall.

Answer: A


Question No: 2

Reports can be created by selecting the ESM System Properties window, the Reports Icon in the top right of the ESM screen, or by which of the following other method selecting the ESM System Properties window, the Reports Icon in the top right of the ESM screen or by which of the following other methods within Alarm Creation?

A. Actions tab

B. Conditions tab

C. Escalation tab

D. Summary tab

Answer: A


Question No : 3

The McAfee SIEM solution satisfies which of the following compliance requirements?

A. Continuous monitoring, Log retention

B. Personally Identifiable Information (Pll) protection

C. Payment Card Industry/ Data Security Standard {PCI/ DSS) protection

D. Patch management automation

Answer: A


Question No: 4

Which of the following statements about Client Data Sources is TRUE?

A. They will have VIPS, Policy, and Agent rights.

B. They will be d splayed on the Receiver Properties > Data Sources table.

C. They will appear on the System Navigation tree.

D. They can have independent time zones.

Answer: C


Question No: 5

A SIEM allows an organization the ability to correlate seemingly disparate streams of traffic into a central console for analysis. This correlation, in many cases, can point out activities that might otherwise go undetected This type of detection is also known as

A. anomaly-based detection

B. behavioral-based detection.

C. heuristic-based detection.

D. signature-based detection

Answer: A


Question No: 6

Which of the following is the name of the Dashboard View that shows correlated events for the selected Data Source?

A. Default Summary

B. Normalized Dashboard

C. Incidents Dashboard

D. Triggered Alarms

Answer: A


Question No: 7

One or more storage allocations, which together specify a total amount of storage, coupled with a data retention time that specifies the maximum number of days a log is to be stored, is known as a

A. Storage Volume.

B. Storage Pool.

C. Storage Device.

D. Storage Area Network (SAN).

Answer: B


Question No: 8

With regard to Data Source configuration and event collection, what does the acronym CEF stand for?

A. Correlation Event Framing

B. Common Event Format

C. Common Event Framing

D. Condition Event Format

Answer: B


Question No: 9

The McAfee SIEM baselines daily events over

A. three days

B. five days

C. seven days

D. nine days

Answer: A


Question No: 10

McAfee's SIEM provides awareness of illicit behavior across multiple internal systems via

A. default data-source events.

B. default correlation events

C. default alerts.

D. default reports.

Answer: C


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Monday 30 November 2020

SAP C_TS462_1809 Dumps PDF - Best Study Material| Exam4help.com

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Question: 1

Where do you configure whether billing should be order or delivery-related?

A. Item category of the delivery

B. Sales Order type

C. Delivery type

D. Item category of the sales order

Answer: D 


Question: 2

Your project uses the new output management in SAP S/4HAN A. What must you create to print the order confirmation immediately after the order is saved?

A. Decision table entry

B. Condition record

C. Output message

D. Transmission medium

Answer: A 


Question: 3

Which organizational units must you set up for billing? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. Business Area

B. Sales area

C. Company Code

D. Profit Center

Answer: B, C


Question: 4

When you set up a Billing Document, which copies of control parameters are available at the header level? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. Pricing type

B. Reference number

C. Copy item number

D. Update document flow

Answer: B, C 


Question: 5

Which confirmation strategies can you use to execute backorder processing?

A. Fill

B. Fail

C. Lose

D. Split

E. Win

Answer: A, C, E 


Question: 6

In a standard SAP S/4HANA system, you have created a sales order. Upon saving, you receive a system message that a business partner of a specific partner function is missing. Which of the following partner functions can cause this problem? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. Forwarding agent

B. Contact person

C. Bill-to-party

D. Payer

Answer: C, D 


Question: 7

Where is customizing do you assign the billing plan type?

A. Billing document type

B. Billing document item category

C. Sales document item category

D. Copying Control for Billing Documents

Answer: C


Question: 8

Which elements can you use to influence the determination of the shipping point?

A. Storage condition

B. Plant

C. Loading group

D. Shipping condition

E. Transportation group

Answer: B, C, D 


Question: 9

You need texts for shipping in a sales order. These are usually sourced from the ship-to-party, but if they are NOT maintained in the ship-to-party, they should be sourced from the sold-to-party. Which of the following objects triggers this behavior?

A. Condition table

B. Text determination procedure

C. Access sequence

D. Text type

Answer: B


Question: 10

What is the purpose of the condition type within the pricing process?

A. To control the properties of pricing conditions

B. To control the pricing procedure for each document

C. To define which condition types are used and in which sequence

D. To define the key fields of a pricing condition record

Answer: A


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Sunday 29 November 2020

AFM GLO_CWM_LVL_1 Dumps PDF Questions - Exam4Help.com

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Question: 1

Which of the following Mutual Funds was not set up within Phase 2: 1987-1993?

A. Canbank Mutual Fund

B. Kothari Pioneer Mutual Fund

C. SBI Mutual Fund

D. LIC Mutual Fund

Answer: B 



Question: 2

The minimum service required for entitlement to payment of gratuity under the Act, in case of an employee leaving service by death or incapacitation is

A. 2 years

B. 3 years

C. 5 years

D. No minimum service required

Answer: D 


Question: 3

Rajiv buys a growth-oriented non-dividend-paying share for Rs. 200 and 4 years later sells it for Rs. 350. The CAGR is

A. 10.30%

B. 18.80%

C. 75%

D. 15%

Answer: D


Question: 4

A Post Office Recurring Deposit account can be prematurely closed after________years and interest would be payable on a prematurely closed account. 

A. 4 Years, Post Office Time Deposit

B. 3 Years, Post Office Savings Account

C. 1 Year, Post Office Recurring Deposit

D. 1 Year, Post Office Savings Account

Answer: B 


Question: 5

"Premium" is associated with

A. Forward

B. Futures

C. Options

D. All of the above

Answer: C 


Question: 6

"At the money" option will generate

A. Positive cash flows

B. Zero cash flow

C. Negative cash flows

D. None of the above

Answer: B 


Question: 7

Saurabh contributes Rs. 10,000 every year starting from the end of the 5th year from today till the end of the 12th year in the account that gives an ROI of 7.75% p.a. compounded half-yearly. Calculate the Present Value of his contribution today.

A. 39441

B. 39800

C. 42557

D. 36500

Answer: C 


Question: 8

Mr.Singhvi is a senior manager in an advertising firm in Mumbai. During the previous year 2011-12, he gets the following emoluments: Basic salary Rs.30, 000 per month, clearness allowance: 10% of basic salary, city compensatory allowance: Rs.300 per month, children education allowance: Rs.500 per month (for 3 children), house rent allowance: 20% of salary (rent paid Rs.2000 per month). He gets Rs. 21,000 as a reimbursement from his employer in respect of medical expenditure incurred on treatment of his wife in a private clinic. Besides, he gets Rs.12,400 as reimbursement from the employer in respect of books and journals purchased by him in discharging his official work. He contributes 11% of his salary to the statutory provident fund to which a matching contribution is made by the employer. During the year, he spends Rs. 15, 000 for maintaining a car for going to college. Determine his net income under the head of salaries.

A. 426600

B. 417600

C. 515600

D. 528600

Answer: B 



Question: 9

Which of the following would make a consideration unlawful?

A. Forbidden by law

B. Not in writing

C. Both of the above

D. None of the above

Answer: A 


Question: 10

Which of the following statement is correct?

A. The doctrine of adhesion states that you can bargain or ask the insurer to change the terms of the insurance contract as per your needs.

B. While applying for life insurance, it becomes your duty to disclose your past illnesses to the insurer, according to the principle of utmost good faith

C. While applying for life insurance, it becomes your duty to disclose your past illnesses to the insurer, according to the principle of insurable interest

D. While applying for life insurance, it becomes your duty to disclose your past illnesses to the insurer, according to the principle of subrogation

Answer: B 


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Saturday 28 November 2020

CTEP Exam Question Dumps - CTEP Exam Question Answers PDF

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Question: 1

Which two of the following are preventive controls in a check disbursement process?

1. Daily reconciliation of the bank account used for check disbursements and prompt follow-up of unreconciled items.

2. Segregation of the following duties: establishing new vendors, approving checks, and reconciling the bank account.

3. An activity report detailing who accesses the check disbursement system and the nature of any action taken in the system.

4. Evidence of strong access controls ensuring that authorized individuals have access only to the functions related to their responsibilities.

A. 1 and 3.

B. 1 and 4.

C. 2 and 3.

D. 2 and 4.

Answer: D 


Question: 2

What is the additional advantage of facilitated workshops, in comparison with structured interviews, used when testing the effectiveness of entity-level controls?

A. During facilitated workshops, people more openly say things to internal auditors than during private interviews.

B. Internal auditors do not need other sources of information, as the data gathered during facilitated workshops is sufficient.

C. Facilitated workshops create a synergy of discussion that can bring multiple perspectives to the same issue.

D. The testimonial evidence obtained during facilitated workshops is generally considered more reliable.

Answer: C 


Question: 3

The chief audit executive (CAE) has assigned an internal auditor to an upcoming engagement. Which of the following requirements would most likely indicate that the internal auditor was assigned to an assurance engagement?

A. The assigned internal auditor must determine the objectives, scope, and techniques of the engagement.

B. The CAE must personally obtain the needed skills, knowledge, or other competencies if the internal auditor does not have them.

C. The assigned internal auditor must not assume management responsibilities while performing the engagement.

D. The assigned internal auditor must maintain objectivity while performing the engagement

Answer: A 


Question: 4

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding periodic internal assessments of the internal audit activity?

A. Internal assessments are conducted to benchmark the internal audit activity's performance against industry best practices.

B. Internal assessments must be performed at least once every five years by a qualified assessor.

C. An internal auditor may perform a peer review of a colleague's work papers, as long as the auditor wasn't involved in the audit under review.

D. Follow-up to ensure appropriate improvements are implemented is recommended, but not mandatory, the element of internal assessments.

Answer: C


Question: 5

An organization has implemented a software system that requires a supervisor to approve transactions that would cause treasury dealers to exceed their authorized limit. This is an example of which of the following types of controls?

A. Preventive controls.

B. Detective controls.

C. Soft controls.

D. Directive controls.

Answer: A 


Question: 6

Which of the following would be considered a preventive control?

A. A library control log.

B. A review of exception reports

C. A password lock on a server.

D. A software scan of financial records for irregularities.

Answer: C


Question: 7

Which of the following is not an appropriate activity for internal auditors to perform?

A. Recommend management seek a consulting firm to advise on outsourcing.

B. Highlight matters that require management's attention.

C. Implement solutions for specific organizational problems.

D. Accumulate data, obtain varying views and report information to senior management.

Answer: C


Question: 8

Which of the following risk management activities is most appropriate for an internal auditor to undertake?

A. Impose risk management processes.

B. Coordinate risk management activities.

C. Implement risk responses on management's behalf.

D. Review the management of key risks.

Answer: D


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ZF-100-500 Exam Question Dumps - ZF-100-500 Exam Question Answers PDF

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Question No: 1

You want to retrieve all the data from any given table. You also want to ensure that no duplicate values are displayed. Which of the following SQL statements will you use to accomplish the task?

A. SELECT...TOP

B. SELECT...WHERE

C. SELECT...DISTINCT

D. SELECT...ALL

Answer: C


Question No: 2

You want a formatted date for an RSS feed. Which of the following code syntaxes will you use to accomplish the task?

A. Zend_Date::RSSFEED

B. Zend_Date::RSS

C. $RSS= new Zend_RSS_Date()

D. Zend_Date->RSS

Answer: B


Question No : 3

Which of the following are the configuration files that are used in Zend_Config?

A. Zend_Config_Server

B. Zend_Config_Xml

C. Zend_Config_Db

D. Zend_Config_Ini

Answer: B, D


Question No: 4

Which of the following keywords is necessary for all the switch statements?

A. Case

B. Default

C. Final

D. View

Answer: B


Question No: 5 CORRECT TEXT

Fill in the blank with the appropriate PHP function. The_____________ function is used to replace the current session id with the new session id, and to keep informed of the current session.

Answer: session_regenerate_id()


Question No: 6

Which property is used to operate the memory object data?

A. object

B. data

C. method

D. value

Answer: D


Question No: 7

Which of the following types of content is expected by Zend_Rest_Client when using the best service?

A. JSON

B. HTML

C. Simple text

D. XML

Answer: D


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Friday 27 November 2020

Latest C_FIORDEV_21 Dumps PDF - C_FIORDEV_21 Online Test Engine

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Question #:1

Your customer needs to securely connect the SAP HANA Cloud Connector to the Web IDE of an on-premise system. How does the SAP HANA cloud connector help do this? (2 answers)

A.It supports custom destination API configuration and certificate inspection

B.It secures an SSL tunnel between the SAP Hana Cloud and the on-premise system

C.It initiates a cloud-based reverse-invoke process

D.It creates connectivity by a reverse-invoke process on the on-premise system

Answer: B, D


Question #:2

Which OData versions are currently supported by SAPUI5?

A.OData V2

B.OData V7

C.OData V4

D.OData V5

Answer: A, C


Question #:3

Which file can you use to configure internal navigation for List Report and Object Page templates?

A.Data annotation file

B.index.html file

C.vocabulary XML file

D.manifestjson file

Answer: A


Question #:4

Which activities does the OData Model Editor support? (3 answers)

A.Create ODataModels

B.Deploy ODataModels

C.Test ODataModels

D.Edit ODataModels

E.Define ODataModels

Answer: A C D


Question #:5

Which deployment options do you have for SAP Fiori Uls and OData Services regarding the software

components? (2 answers)

A.One deployment package on the same system as the business system

B.Two different deployment packages on a different form the business system

C.One deployment package on a different system from the business system

D.Two different deployment packages on the same system as the business system

Answer: A, C


Question #:6

What class in the SAPUI5 API supports back-end mock-up and is recommended by SAP?

A.sap.ui.core.MockServer

B.sap.ui.app.MockServer

C.sap.m.MockServer

D.sap.ui.core.util.MockServer

Answer: D


Question #:7

In which base class implementation is the setModel function implemented?

A.sap.ui.base.Object

B.sap.ui.base.Interface

C.sap.ui.model.base.BaseModel

D.sap.ui.base.ManagedObject

Answer: A D



Question #:8
An administrator wants to configure the SAP Fiori Launchpad for all users in one client for your S/4HANA 1809 landscape. Which of the following options represents the best way for the administrator to do this?

A.Create a target mapping in a catalog and assign the catalog to all users using roles

B.Define settings using transaction /UI5/FLP_CUS_CONF.

C.Use the configuration file to define URL parameters to enable/disable features when starting the SAP
Fiori Launchpad

D.Define settings using transaction /UI5/FLP SYS_CONF

Answer: A B D


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Download C_EWM_95 SAP Q&A With 100% Money-Back Assurance|Exam4help.com

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Question: 1

Work centers can be used in the following processes. There are 3 correct answers to this question. Response:

A. Counting

B. Material staging

C. Packing

D. RFID

E. Quality inspection

F. Yard management

Answer: B, C, E 


Question: 2

Select the statements below that are accurate characteristics of EWM storage bin master data. There are 3 correct answers to this question. Response:

A. The bin coordinate must be unique within the storage type.

B. They are identified by an 18 character bin coordinate.

C. They are identified by a 10 character bin coordinate.

D. Bins can have geo-coordinates that the EWM system can use to compute travel distances.

E. The bin coordinate must be unique within the warehouse.

Answer: B, D, E 


Question: 3

Which packing modes can you use to control the creation of a handling unit (Hus)? There are 3 correct answers to this question Response:

A. Complex algorithm

B. BAdl

C. consolidation group

D. simple algorithm

E. limit value

Answer: A, B, E


Question: 4

To which objects do you assign the storage process to use it in a goods receipt process? Please choose the correct answer. Response:

A. Inbound delivery type

B. Warehouse order creation rule

C. Packaging specification

D. Warehouse process type

Answer: D


Question: 5

Which of the following objects can you assign to a resource? There are 3 correct answers to this question Response:

A. Resource element

B. Standard Bin

C. Queue

D. Resource type

E. Resource equipment

Answer: B, C, D 


Question: 6

Capacity checking according to key figures can be calculated based on which of the following-There are 3 correct answers to this question. Response:

A. Check according to the bin type

B. Check according to the key figure of the storage type

C. Check according to the key figure of the storage section

D. Check according to the key figure of the HU

E. Check according to the key figure of the product and HU

F. Check according to the key figure of the product

Answer: D, E, F 


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Pass Your SAP C_THR95_1911 Assessment Easy! - Exam4help.com

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Question: 1

A user is viewing the Career Path. What information is displayed when the user clicks on the popup icon on the role node? There are 2 correct answers to this question. Choose:

A. Job Family

B. Job Description

C. Competencies

D. Job Code

Answer: AD


Question: 2

What can you edit on the Goal Creation Notification e-mail template? There are 2 correct answers to this question. Choose:

A. The trigger of the notification

B. The e-mail subject and body of the notification

C. The goal plans which are affected by settings of this notification

D. The recipient of the notification

Answer: BC


Question: 3

Your customer wants to use a Calculated Expected rating for competency. What information must you provide?

There are 3 correct answers to this question. Choose:

A. Lowest score

B. Medium score

C. Expected score

D. Normalized score

E. Highest score

Answer: ADE


Question: 4

What populates the competencies on the Role-Readiness form? Please choose the correct answer. Choose one:

A. The mapped competencies of the suggested role

B. The role of the user in Manage Job Roles

C. The job code of the user in Manage Job Roles

D. The mapped competencies of the future role

Answer: D


Question: 5

You need to create a new Development Plan Template. Which options are available?

There are 2 correct answers to this question. Choose:

A. Add a template from the SuccessStore

B. Modify the Goal Management Feature settings

C. Copy an existing template using the ‘Save As’ function.

D. Update the Form Template settings

Answer: AC



Question: 6

Your customer wants an additional development plan template for the employees. What activities do you perform in the Admin Center? There are 2 correct answers to this question. Choose:

A. Make both templates active

B. Configure object definitions

C. Create a new template

D. Configure career path node

Answer: AC


Question: 7

Your customer wants to display all career path details to the employee but does NOT want them to be able to change the details. What do you need to do? Please choose the correct answer. Choose one:

A. Grant the ‘view’ option to the Career Path in Miscellaneous Permissions

B. Add the ‘write’ field permission in the Career Worksheet XML.

C. Grant the ‘Import/Export’ option to the Career Path in Miscellaneous Permissions.

D. Grant the Development Admin permission to the administrator.

Answer: A


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Thursday 26 November 2020

100% Valid Huawei H12-425 Dumps|Exam4help.com

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Question: 1

Site selection is one challenge for the traditional data center

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Answer: A 


Question: 2

Unpredictable business, expansion, and difficult investment is one of the challenges facing the

development of traditional data center business.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Answer: A


Question: 3

Which system affects the PUE most in Data Center.

A. Power Distribution system

B. Cooling System

C. N/A

D. Lighting system

Answer: B 


Question: 4

Which one is the best PUE in the following:

A. 1.06

B. 2

C. 0.3 

D. -0.5

Answer: A


Question: 5

Cold/Hot aisle containment is used to solve the problem of heat dissipation in the Data Center.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Answer: A 


Question: 6

Modular Data Center is on-demand deployment, which avoids over-investment.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Answer: A 


Question: 7

Which Technologies or solutions can reduce PUE?

A. Increasing the number of access control systems

B. Efficient modular UPS

C. Cold/hot aisle containment

D. In-row cooling

Answer: B,C,D 


Question: 8

FusionModule2000 is an outdoor smart modular data center solution.

A. TRUE 

B. FALSE

Answer: B 


Question: 9

FusionModule1000 is an indoor prefabricated all-in-one data center solution.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Answer: B


Question: 10

FusionModule1000A series solution meets the TIER 4 requirements if it adopts 2N power supply and

distribution system.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Answer: B


Question: 11

Depending on different layouts, the batteries can be deployed inside or outside FusionModule2000

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Answer: A


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Excellent VEEAM VMCE2020 Dumps PDF |VMCE2020 Practice Test

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Question #:1

A company has separate networks for management traffic and data traffic. All Veeam components are communicating over the management network. How would they define the data network for backup data transfers?

A.Re-add all Veeam components involved in data transfer through the required interfaces

B.Update routing tables on the components involved in data transfer

C.Create a global network traffic rule, set the appropriate source and target IP range

D.Use the preferred network settings to switch to a data network for the backup traffic

Answer: C


Question #:2

Which of the following statements are true regarding backup copy jobs in Veeam Backup & Replication? (Choose two.)

A.The backup copy job creates a forever forward incremental backup chain

B.The backup copy job creates a single file with multiple restore points included within for archival purposes

C.During the backup copy job process, a VM snapshot is created for consistency

D.Retention settings maintain the desired number of restore points as well as offer optional GFS for archival purposes

E.Backup copy jobs copy entire VBK, VIB, or VRB files from the source backup repository to the target backup repository

Answer: A, D


Question #:3

A backup administrator is planning to install Veeam ONE. Which data collection mode collects the most data per VM?

A.For vCenter data only

B.Optimized for advanced scalability deployment

C.For backup data only

D.Optimized for a typical deployment

Answer: B


Question #:4

A backup job has been configured to keep three incremental restore points and a synthetic full backup each Sunday. More restore points are present on the disk than what was configured in the job. Why?

A.The old restore points will be deleted after the new restore chain meets the retention policy

B.Per VM backup files are enabled in the repository

C.The other restore points are weekly full backups, this is expected

D.You should configure the synthetic full backup to be performed on Mondays instead

Answer: C


Question #:5

Veeam is used for replicating VMware VMs. The production environment is comprised of two networks: 192.168.1.0/24 and 172.16.0.0/16. A web application requires a database server (whose IP address is 172.21.0.12) to receive queries from a web client (whose IP address is 192.168.1.32). The replicas are spread over multiple hosts. A backup administrator needs to configure a virtual lab to test a web client to database server query. Which of the following virtual lab types must be configured?

A.Advanced multi-host

B.Advanced single-host

C.All virtual lab configurations would support that

D.Basic single-host

Answer: B


Question #:6

The backup administrator configured replication for a VM from Data Center 1 to Data Center 2, which runs every day at 1 a.m. A power surge takes out Data Center 1 at 7 a.m. and the administrator fails over the replica at 8 a.m. When the power comes back on, the administrator performs the “failback” action at 2 p.m. and checks the state of the original VM. They recognize that not all data is available. What is missing?

A.Data from 1 a.m. to 7 a.m.

B.Data from 1 a.m. to 2 p.m.

C.Data from 8 a.m. to 2 p.m.

D.Data from 7 a.m. to 8 a.m

Answer: B


Question #:7

When planning to back up files and folders from shared sources, that is the correct method to connect to the file share from the Veeam backup server?

A.Add the file share into the store infrastructure

B.Add the file share into the physical infrastructure

C.Add the file share into the inventory

D.Add the file share into the managed servers

Answer: D

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