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Question: 1

What is the correct statement about IP routing? 

A. Routing is the concept of the second layer in the OSI model. 
B. Any route must include the following three parts: source address, destination address, and next hop. 
C. In the LAN, routing includes the following two parts: IP address and MAC address. 
D. IP routing is the path information that guides IP packet forwarding. 

 Answer: D


Question: 2

Which is the next generation development prospect of the access network? 

A. Expand the application of PSTN 
B. Increase the type of service transmitted on ADSL 
C. Light into the copper 
D. Increase the ADSL transmission distance and increase the coverage radius 

 Answer: C


Question: 3

Which of the following does not belong to the communication network category? 

A. Telephone network 
B. Internet network 
C. Radio and television network 
D. State Grid 

Answer: D


Question: 4

Among the access technologies of the access network, which of the following access modes can provide the largest access bandwidth? 

A. ADSL 
B. ADSL 2+ 
C. VDSL 
D. GPON 

Answer: D


Question: 5

Is the following description correct? ICMP is a link layer protocol. ICMP messages are triggered by the physical layer and then responded by the IP layer or higher layer protocols. 

A. True 
B. False 

Answer: B

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Question No : 1

Which resource controls should you use to maximize consistency of CPU performance?
 Select all that apply.

A. CPU share 
B. CPU cap 
C. RAM cap 
D. Dedicated CPUs 
E. Locked memory cap 

Answer: A,B


Question No : 2

When configuring Zones using Automated Installer, the following line is found in the manifest:
What does the "source" element correspond to?

A. the configuration file for the global zone 
B. the resource groups for"tree" server 
C. the configuration file for the non-global zones 
D. therequired corresponding open-source disclaimer 
E. the location of the"apple" IPS repo 

Answer: B


Question No : 3

Your system has two disk devices, c2t0d0 and c2t1d0, and two flash devices, c2t5d0 and c2t8d0. Which command would you to create a storage pool named “tank,” which mirrors the disks and adds the two flash devices as “cache”?

A. zpool create tank mirror c2t0d0 c2t1d0 mirror c2t5d0 c2t8d0 
B. zpoolcreate tank mirror c2t0d0 c2t1d0 log mirrorc2t5d0 c2t8d0 
C. zpool c2t0d0 c2t1d0 cachec2t5d0 c2t8d0mirror 
D. zpool create tank mirror c2t0d0 c2t1d0 cachec2t5d0 c2t8d0 
E. zpool create tankraidz2c2t0d0 c2t1d0 c2t5d0 c2t8d0 

Answer: D


Question No : 4

What are the two reasons that network configurations are set using svccfg, ipadm, and nscfg?

A. to check for proper syntax before applying a change 
B. to comply with Sarbane-Oxley and Payment Card Industry specifications 
C. to hide defaults fromcasualusers 
D. because the vi(l) text editor is no longer available 
E. touse SMF 

Answer: C,E 



Question No : 5

You are performing an initial AI Installation of Oracle Solaris 11. You have not identified a target disk for the root pool and your installation fails. What are the two possible disk based reasons for this failure?

A. You need to specifythe dump and swap partitions in the AI manifest to perform a successful OracleSolaris11Installation. 
B. The disk does not have an SMI label. 
C. You have not specified a mirrored dataset for the root pool. 
D. Thedisk or slice does not match or meet the recommended size parameters of approximately 13GB. 
E. ZFSrequires thedisk to be partitioned first and the root partition must be active. 

Answer: B,D

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Question: 1

What are the methods in the Anti-Ddos solution that are not dynamic draining? 

A.  MPLS 
B.  OSPF 
C.  Policy routing 
D.  BGP 
E.  GRE 

Answer: B,C




Question: 2

Firehunte supports stand-alone or cluster deployment 

A.  True 
B.  False 

Answer: A


Question: 3

In the campus network multi-export solution, NGFW transparent DNS proxy + ISP routing can solve user access to INTERNET Too concentrated on the same carrier 

A.  True 
B.  False 

Answer: A


Question: 4

Which of the following are features of the NGFW integrated detection mechanism? 

A.  Perform a test on the message to get the data needed for all content security functions.
B.  High performance while maintaining full content security. 
C.  Can provide threat protection, AV, mail filtering, URL detection, etc. 
D.  Provide hardware 

Answer: A,B,C


Question: 5

Which of the following MAC entries should not exist in an NGFW static MAC entry? 

A.  Black hole MAC 
B.  Local system MAC 
C.  Broadcast MAC 
D.  Multicast MAC 

Answer: C

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Question: 1

You want to upload files from an on-premises virtual machine to Google Cloud Storage as part of a Data migration. These files will be consumed by Cloud DataProc Hadoop cluster in a GCP environment. Which command should you use? 

A. gsutil cp [LOCAL_OBJECT] gs://[DESTINATION_BUCKET_NAME]/ 
B. gcloud cp [LOCAL_OBJECT] gs://[DESTINATION_BUCKET_NAME]/ 
C. hadoop fs cp [LOCAL_OBJECT] gs://[DESTINATION_BUCKET_NAME]/ 
D. gcloud dataproc cp [LOCAL_OBJECT] gs://[DESTINATION_BUCKET_NAME]/ 

Answer: A


Question: 2

You migrated your applications to Google Cloud Platform and kept your existing monitoring platform. You now find that your notification system is too slow for time critical problems. What should you do? 

A. Replace your entire monitoring platform with Stackdriver. 
B. Install the Stackdriver agents on your Compute Engine instances. 
C. Use Stackdriver to capture and alert on logs, then ship them to your existing platform. 
D. Migrate some traffic back to your old platform and perform AB testing on the two platforms concurrently. 

Answer: B


Question: 3

You are planning to migrate a MySQL database to the managed Cloud SQL database for Google Cloud. You have Compute Engine virtual machine instances that will connect with this Cloud SQL instance. You do not want to whitelist IPs for the Compute Engine instances to be able to access Cloud SQL. What should you do? 

A. Enable private IP for the Cloud SQL instance. 
B. Whitelist a project to access Cloud SQL, and add Compute Engine instances in the whitelisted project. 
C. Create a role in Cloud SQL that allows access to the database from external instances, and assign The Compute Engine instances to that role. 
D. Create a CloudSQL instance on one project. Create Compute engine instances in a different project. Create a VPN between these two projects to allow internal access to CloudSQL. 

Answer: C


Question: 4

Health checks to port 80 on the Compute Engine virtual machine instance are failing and no traffic is sent to your instances. You want to resolve the problem. Which commands should you run? 

A. gcloud compute instances add-access-config ${NAME}-backend-instance-1 
B. gcloud compute instances add-tags ${NAME}-backend-instance-1 --tags http-server 
C. gcloud compute firewall-rules create allow-lb --network load-balancer --allow tcp --source-ranges 130.211.0.0/22,35.191.0.0/16 --direction INGRESS 
D. gcloud compute firewall-rules create allow-lb --network load-balancer --allow tcp --destination-ranges 130.211.0.0/22,35.191.0.0/16 --direction EGRESS

Answer: C


Question: 5

Your website is deployed on Compute Engine. Your marketing team wants to test conversion rates between 3 different website designs. Which approach should you use? 

A. Deploy the website on App Engine and use traffic splitting. 
B. Deploy the website on App Engine as three separate services. 
C. Deploy the website on Cloud Functions and use traffic splitting. 
D. Deploy the website on Cloud Functions as three separate functions. 

Answer: A

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Question: 1 

Where on the Mobility Master (MM) can an administrator configure the VIA connection profile? 

A. L2 Authentication 
B. L3 Authentication 
C. AAA Profiles 
D. User Roles 

Answer: B


Question: 2 

An administrator configures two Mobility Masters (MMs) for redundancy and database synchronization. Which protocol transports database information between the two MMs? 

A. AMON 
B. SNMP 
C. IPSec 
D. VRRP 

Answer: D


Question: 3 

Which protocol communicates RF neighborhood information to an Aruba Mobility Master (MM) for use by AirMatch? 

A. GRE 
B. PAPI 
C. SNMP 
D. AMON 

Answer: D


Question: 4

An administrator adds local administrative accounts to manage the Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). Which role should the administrator assign to an administrator who should have the same privileges as the default admin account? 

A. level-15 
B. superuser 
C. root 
D. admin 

Answer: D


Question: 5

An administrator implements two redundant Aruba Mobility Masters (MMs). Which protocol should the administrator use to detect a failure in a single subnet? 

A. PAPI 
B. SNMP 
C. VRRP 
D. IPSec 

Answer: C

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Question: 1

You are currently hosting multiple applications in a VPC and have logged numerous port scans coming in from a specific IP address block. Your security team has requested that all access from the offending IP address block be denied for the next 24 hours. Which of the following is the best method to quickly and temporarily deny access from the specified IP address block? 

A. Create an AD policy to modify Windows Firewall settings on all hosts in the VPC to deny access from the IP address block 
B. Modify the Network ACLs associated with all public subnets in the VPC to deny access from the IP address block 
C. Add a rule to all of the VPC 5 Security Groups to deny access from the IP address block 
D. Modify the Windows Firewall settings on all Amazon Machine Images (AMIs) that your organization uses in that VPC to deny access from the IP address block 

 Answer: B  
   

Question: 2 

When preparing for a compliance assessment of your system built inside of AWS. what are three best-practices for you to prepare for an audit? (Choose three.) 

A. Gather evidence of your IT operational controls 
B. Request and obtain applicable third-party audited AWS compliance reports and certifications 
C. Request and obtain a compliance and security tour of an AWS data center for a pre-assessment security review 
D. Request and obtain approval from AWS to perform relevant network scans and in-depth penetration tests of your system's Instances and endpoints 
E. Schedule meetings with AWS's third-party auditors to provide evidence of AWS compliance that maps to your control objectives 

 Answer: A,B,D     


Question: 3 

You have started a new job and are reviewing your company's infrastructure on AWS You notice one web application where they have an Elastic Load Balancer (&B) in front of web instances in an Auto Scaling Group When you check the metrics for the ELB in CloudWatch you see four healthy instances in Availability Zone (AZ) A and zero in AZ B There are zero unhealthy instances. What do you need to fix to balance the instances across AZs? 

A. Set the ELB to only be attached to another AZ 
B. Make sure Auto Scaling is configured to launch in both AZs 
C. Make sure your AMI is available in both AZs 
D. Make sure the maximum size of the Auto Scaling Group is greater than 4 

Answer: B     

Question: 4 

You have been asked to leverage Amazon VPC BC2 and SOS to implement an application that submits and receives millions of messages per second to a message queue. You want to ensure your application has sufficient bandwidth between your EC2 instances and SQS Which option will provide the most scalable solution for communicating between the application and SQS? 

A. Ensure the application instances are properly configured with an Elastic Load Balancer 
B. Ensure the application instances are launched in private subnets with the EBS-optimized option enabled 
C. Ensure the application instances are launched in public subnets with the associate-public-IPaddress= true option enabled 
D. Launch application instances in private subnets with an Auto Scaling group and Auto Scaling triggers configured to watch the SQS queue size 

Answer: D     


Question: 5 

You have identified network throughput as a bottleneck on your m1.small EC2 instance when uploading data Into Amazon S3 In the same region. How do you remedy this situation? 

A. Add an additional ENI 
B. Change to a larger Instance 
C. Use DirectConnect between EC2 and S3 
D. Use EBS PIOPS on the local volume 

Answer: B     

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Question #:1

Which two dates on the license are used during License Assignment to determine if a license can be assigned to a transaction?

A. Expiration Date
B. Approval Date
C. Renewal Date
D. Effective Date

Answer: A


Question #:2

Which two statements are true about a regime? (Choose two.)

A. Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) is a regime.
B. In GTM, a regime can be defined as a set of rules or regulations.
C. One country should have only one regime.
D. One regime may apply to multiple countries.
E. In the USA, Export Administration Regulations (EAR) is the one and only regime for Trade Compliance.

Answer: B,C


Question #:3

During implementation, which option does not need to be set up before Sanction Territory Screening Rules testing?

A. Item
B. Control Type
C. Control Code
D. Region or County

Answer: C

Question #:4

Your client wants you to exclude certain words that are commonly used for screening. Which configuration would you use in GTM?

A. Service Preference
B. Service Parameter
C. Restricted Party Exclusion List
D. Agent Logic

Answer: B


Question #:5

Which two statements are true about restricted party screening of parties with an agent? (Choose two.)

A. Agent logic can be developed to perform selective screening of only certain parties.
B. GTM automatically performs the screening of parties as soon as they are created without any agent logic.
C. A single agent cannot listen to both creation and modification events to perform restricted party screening; separate agents must be created.
D. The SCREEN RESTRICTED PARTIES agent action can be used to perform a sanctions screening of a party.
E. Agent logic is required to send outbound integration messages to other applications regarding the status of party screening.

Answer: A,E

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